Answer to a KJV-Onlyist on Psalm 12:6-7

Recently I was challenged by a KJV-Onlyist in an online discussion group with this question:

An expert could answer a simple question like – “Which is right and which is wrong in respect to Psa 12:6-7, the AV1611 or the ESV? Surely, you can provide an answer?”

Here was my answer (edited for clarity in this post):

In regards to your question regarding Psalm 12:6-7, your question is flawed because it assumes either:   1) That only one English translation is “right” (AV1611 or the ESV), and the other is “wrong” OR  2) That Psalm 12:6-7 is a Biblical promise to infallibly preserve His written Word, and has done so in the AV1611.

Here is Psalm 12:6-7 in the AV1611, KJV and the ESV:

6 The wordes of the Lord are pure wordes: as siluer tried in a fornace of earth purified seuen times. 7 Thou shalt keepe them, (O Lord,) thou shalt preserue them, from this generation for euer.  (AV 1611)

6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.  7 Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.  (KJV)

6 The words of the Lord are pure words, like silver refined in a furnace on the ground, purified seven times.  7 You, O Lord, will keep them; you will guard us from this generation forever.  (ESV)

If you are asking which English translation is “right”, both the ESV and the AV1611 provide an acceptable translation of the original text.  So – neither translation is a “right” or “wrong” one.  However, the ESV is a better and clearer translation.  Note a key difference in verse 7.

KJV: Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever

ESV: You, O Lord, will keep them; you will guard us from this generation forever.

Why the difference?  The answer lies in an examination of Psalm 12.  Psalm 12 is a community lament.  David begs God for help, lamenting that the “godly man ceaseth” and the “faithful fail from among the children of men”  (both ways of saying that it appears no more faithful and godly men are to be found ).  He then contrasts the lying, proud and flattering lips of men (in verse 2) with the pure and truthful words of God (in verse 6).  Verse 7 is stating that God will protect the poor and oppressed referenced in verse 5:

Verse 5 – The LORD makes His promise to arise and deliver the poor and oppressed.
Verse 6 – The words of the LORD are pure and true
Verse 7 – The LORD will keep and guard “them” (the poor and oppressed)

How do we know for certain that the “them” in verse 7 is referring to the poor and oppressed in verse 5, and not the words of the LORD in verse 6?  This is an excellent example of the great help original languages are in determining the correct meaning of a passage.

A casual reading of the KJV (or AV1611) would seem to indicate that verse 7 is referring back to “the words of the LORD” in verse 6, although it would have to be admitted that the “them” could also refer to the poor and oppressed from verse 5.  However, what is ambiguous in English is made clear in Hebrew.  The Hebrew language has a feature the English language lacks – grammatical gender.  The two pronouns translated as “them” in the KJV are masculine, and it follows that their antecedent (the preceding noun to which they refer) must also be masculine.  The term translated “words” in verse 6 is feminine.  Therefore the “them” in verse 7 CANNOT be referring to “words” in verse 6, but the “oppressed” and “needy” in verse 5.

And so Psalm 12:6-7 is NOT a promise by God to infallibly preserve His word, and CANNOT POSSIBLY refer to a future English translation of the Bible.

This is not to say that God has not promised to preserve His words.  “Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35 – also see Luke 21:33 and Mark 13:31).  But there is no indication from Scripture that He would do so in or through a 17th-century Anglican translation.